Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on young adult.
A 28-year-old female presents with a chronic cough and fatigue. She has no significant past medical history but reports recent travel to Southeast Asia. A chest PET-CT was performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a lesion on his nose that has been present for approximately 3 months. He initially thought it was a persistent pimple but it has not resolved and seems to be slowly growing. He denies pain, itching, or bleeding from the lesion. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. He works outdoors but reports using sunscreen inconsistently. On examination, vital signs are stable. The lesion is as shown in the image. There are no other skin lesions noted elsewhere. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Based on the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of a persistent cough and shortness of breath. She has no significant past medical history and is a non-smoker. On examination, she has bilateral wheezing and reduced breath sounds. A chest X-ray shows hyperinflation of the lungs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 32-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea despite being on maintenance infliximab. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, chills, and right flank pain. She has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. On examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, her heart rate is 110 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg. There is tenderness on palpation of the right costovertebral angle. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
A 25-year-old Aboriginal man presents to a remote clinic with increasing shortness of breath on exertion and palpitations over the past month. He recalls having a sore throat as a child but no specific diagnosis. On examination, his pulse is 95 bpm, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min. Auscultation reveals a pansystolic murmur loudest at the apex, radiating to the axilla. There are no signs of heart failure currently. Considering the likely diagnosis and the patient's background, which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?
A 35-year-old male with a history of multiple cutaneous vascular lesions presents with recurrent episodes of crampy abdominal pain and melena over the past month. His vital signs are stable. An abdominal CT scan is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, what is the most likely underlying pathology responsible for the patient's symptoms and the observed bowel findings?
A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 2-week history of a persistent cough, night sweats, and unintentional weight loss. She has recently returned from a trip to Southeast Asia. On examination, she appears thin and has crackles in the upper zones of her lungs. A chest X-ray shows cavitary lesions in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, malaise, and a painful, swollen left knee. She denies any recent trauma or travel history. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, her temperature is 38.7°C, heart rate is 110 bpm, and blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. The left knee is erythematous, warm, and tender with a moderate effusion, and she has limited range of motion due to pain. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis with a left shift. Blood cultures are pending. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of severe headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness. He has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, he is febrile with a temperature of 39°C, and there is a positive Brudzinski's sign. What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm the diagnosis?
A 30-year-old immigrant presents with chronic cough and night sweats. Sputum is negative for AFB. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A 17-year-old teenage girl presents with menorrhagia and a family history of heavy periods and hysterectomy, suggestive of Von Willebrand Disease (VWD). Which statement about VWD is correct?
A 25-year-old man with Crohn's disease presents with increased abdominal pain and frequent diarrhea. He is on azathioprine. Stool studies are negative for infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A 22-year-old female presents with a strange tongue appearance after brushing her teeth, with no pain. She has a history of pustular psoriasis. What is the next step?
A 23-year-old backpacker doing farm work presents with a low-grade fever for 4 days. Q fever is suspected. What is the most appropriate diagnostic method for acute Q fever in Australia?
A 7-year-old boy is brought to his GP by his parents, who are concerned about his behaviour at school and at home. They report that he has difficulty paying attention in class, often fidgets and squirms in his seat, and frequently interrupts others. At home, he struggles to follow instructions, loses things easily, and seems forgetful. The teacher has also noted that he has difficulty staying on task and often blurts out answers before the question is finished. The parents deny any history of significant medical illness or developmental delay. On examination, the boy appears energetic and talkative, but is cooperative with the assessment. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this child?
A 31-year-old man presents with gradual onset lateral knee pain that worsens with running and has no history of trauma. The pain is localized above the joint line, and there is no swelling. What is the likely diagnosis?
A 35-year-old male presents with left flank pain and dysuria. An ultrasound is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A 32-year-old male, recent immigrant from a high-TB prevalence country, presents with a persistent cough and night sweats for the past two months. He denies fever or weight loss. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild, diffuse rhonchi on auscultation. Sputum cultures are pending. A PET-CT scan of the chest was performed, the axial view is shown. Given the clinical context and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A 28-year-old woman presents with a palpable lump in her left breast, noticed two weeks ago. It is slightly tender, especially before her period. On examination, it is mobile, firm, and about 2 cm. No skin changes or nipple discharge. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?
A 35-year-old male with a history of multiple cutaneous vascular lesions presents with recurrent episodes of crampy abdominal pain and melena over the past month. His vital signs are stable. An abdominal CT scan is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, sore throat, and fatigue. She also reports a rash that developed after taking amoxicillin prescribed by her GP for a presumed bacterial throat infection. On examination, she has cervical lymphadenopathy, a diffuse maculopapular rash, and mild splenomegaly. Her vital signs are stable. A monospot test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the rash?
A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain that started suddenly 2 days ago. Her periods are regular. She denies fever or vomiting. The shown CT was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A 35-year-old lady who underwent laparoscopic appendicectomy presents 3 days later with diarrhea, fever (39.5°C), and erythematous port sites. She had a 5-day course of cefotaxime. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 25-year-old woman with a history of sexual assault presents with intrusive thoughts, avoidance behaviors, and emotional numbness. She is diagnosed with PTSD. What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for this condition?
A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and urgency. She denies fever, flank pain, or vaginal discharge. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptives. On examination, she is afebrile and her vital signs are stable. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. What is the most appropriate treatment?
A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of worsening abdominal pain, primarily localized to the right lower quadrant. He reports associated nausea and decreased appetite but denies vomiting or diarrhea. His past medical history is significant for Crohn's disease, diagnosed 8 years ago, managed with intermittent courses of oral corticosteroids and azathioprine. He admits to poor adherence to his azathioprine regimen over the past year. On examination, he is afebrile with a heart rate of 92 bpm, blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness to palpation in the right lower quadrant with guarding. Bowel sounds are normoactive. Laboratory investigations reveal a white blood cell count of 11,500/µL with neutrophilia, a C-reactive protein (CRP) of 45 mg/L, and normal liver function tests. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast is performed, the relevant images of which are shown. Given the patient's presentation and imaging findings, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A 30-year-old veteran presents with recurrent nightmares, flashbacks of combat, and hypervigilance. He avoids crowded places and has difficulty sleeping. His symptoms have persisted for over 6 months and are affecting his daily functioning. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of fever, night sweats, and a non-productive cough. She has recently returned from a trip to rural Queensland. On examination, she has crackles in the right upper lung field. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 25-year-old man and a 23-year-old woman, newlyweds, are planning a 3-week trip to South America. The woman is not on oral contraceptives and wants to conceive. They are concerned about Zika. What advice can you provide?
A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with worsening shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze over 2 days, requiring her salbutamol reliever daily and waking her at night. Her PEF is 60% of her personal best. She is alert, speaking in sentences, RR 22, HR 95. Based on Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management step?
A 31-year-old man presents with gradual onset lateral knee pain that worsens with running. There is no history of trauma. The pain is localized above the joint line, and there is no swelling. What is the likely diagnosis?
A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of amenorrhea. She reports occasional headaches and galactorrhea. She is not on any medications and has no significant past medical history. On examination, her vital signs are normal, and there are no visual field defects. A pregnancy test is negative. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?
A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of fever, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she has swollen, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes and erythematous tonsils with white exudates. A rapid antigen detection test for group A Streptococcus is positive. What is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?
A 34-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute-onset shortness of breath. A CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is ordered, shown in the photograph, confirming a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment option for this patient?
A 28-year-old female presents with sudden onset severe right lower quadrant pain, associated with nausea and one episode of vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. On examination, she is afebrile, heart rate 88, blood pressure 120/70. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the right iliac fossa. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, with a relevant axial image shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the MOST appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?
A 32-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of severe anal pain, especially during and after bowel movements. He also reports seeing bright red blood on the toilet paper. On examination, there is a visible tear in the anal mucosa at the 6 o'clock position. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy?
A 30-year-old woman with bipolar disorder is prescribed risperidone for manic episodes. She develops tremors and rigidity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 20-year-old female medical student arrives late, parties, and is attentive in consultations. What is the next step?
A 35-year-old healthcare worker has a positive tuberculin skin test (12mm induration) following a known occupational exposure. Her chest X-ray is clear, and she reports no symptoms. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 32-year-old male with a 10-year history of Crohn's disease presents with worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea despite being on maintenance infliximab. He denies fever or blood in his stool. Physical exam reveals mild tenderness in the right lower quadrant. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain that started suddenly 2 days ago. Her periods are irregular. She denies fever or vomiting. The shown CT was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is 8 weeks pregnant by last menstrual period. She reports no fever or chills. On examination, her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, and she appears pale and diaphoretic. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the lower quadrants without rebound tenderness or guarding. A pelvic examination shows a closed cervical os with moderate bleeding. A bedside transvaginal ultrasound reveals an empty uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 32-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with increased abdominal pain and diarrhea. Review the imaging. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
A 20-year-old female medical student arrives late, parties, but is attentive in consultations. What is the next step?
A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, headache, and a rash that started on her wrists and ankles and has now spread to her trunk. She recently returned from a camping trip in the Northern Territory. On examination, she is febrile at 38.5°C, with a heart rate of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. The rash is maculopapular and blanching. Laboratory tests reveal thrombocytopenia and elevated liver enzymes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. On examination, she has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. A urine pregnancy test is positive. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-week history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling in her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test and elevated anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 32-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with persistent anal pain and bleeding on defecation for the past 8 months. He reports a cycle of pain, relief after bowel movements, followed by throbbing pain lasting several hours. Examination reveals a visible anal fissure at the 6 o'clock position, along with a skin tag. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management, according to Australian guidelines?
A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner six weeks postpartum with distressing obsessive thoughts about accidentally harming her newborn. She reports spending excessive time checking on the baby and cleaning the nursery, which interferes with her ability to rest and care for herself. She denies any intent to harm her child and feels ashamed of these thoughts. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and she has no history of psychiatric disorders. On examination, she appears anxious but is cooperative and oriented. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management strategy for her condition?