Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on young adult.
A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe testicular pain on the right side. He reports no trauma or previous episodes. On examination, the right testis is swollen, tender, and lies higher in the scrotum compared to the left. The cremasteric reflex is absent on the affected side. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 28-year-old female presents with a chronic cough and fatigue. She has no significant past medical history but reports recent travel to Southeast Asia. A chest PET-CT was performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 32-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea despite being on maintenance infliximab. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-week history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling of the small joints in her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, chills, and right flank pain. She has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. On examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, her heart rate is 110 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg. There is tenderness on palpation of the right costovertebral angle. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
A 28-year-old man presents to his general practitioner for a routine health check. He reports being in a non-monogamous relationship for the past year. He states he uses condoms inconsistently, particularly within the primary relationship where his partner's HIV status is unknown. He denies any recent febrile illness, rash, or lymphadenopathy. His last HIV test, performed 6 months ago, was negative. He has no other significant medical history. Considering his presentation and reported risk factors, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management according to Australian guidelines?
A 25-year-old Aboriginal man presents to a remote clinic with increasing shortness of breath on exertion and palpitations over the past month. He recalls having a sore throat as a child but no specific diagnosis. On examination, his pulse is 95 bpm, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min. Auscultation reveals a pansystolic murmur loudest at the apex, radiating to the axilla. There are no signs of heart failure currently. Considering the likely diagnosis and the patient's background, which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?
A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 2-week history of a persistent cough, night sweats, and unintentional weight loss. She has recently returned from a trip to Southeast Asia. On examination, she appears thin and has crackles in the upper zones of her lungs. A chest X-ray shows cavitary lesions in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 30-year-old immigrant presents with chronic cough and night sweats. Sputum is negative for AFB. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of a new, intensely itchy rash on her elbows, knees, and scalp. On examination, the GP notes symmetrical, erythematous papules and plaques with overlying silvery scales. The patient reports a family history of similar skin conditions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 22-year-old female presents with a strange tongue appearance after brushing her teeth, with no pain. She has a history of pustular psoriasis. What is the next step?
A 23-year-old backpacker doing farm work presents with a low-grade fever for 4 days. Q fever is suspected. What is the most appropriate diagnostic method for acute Q fever in Australia?
A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe right lower abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports that the pain started suddenly a few hours ago and has been worsening. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. On examination, she has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. A pregnancy test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 32-year-old male, recent immigrant from a high-TB prevalence country, presents with a persistent cough and night sweats for the past two months. He denies fever or weight loss. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild, diffuse rhonchi on auscultation. Sputum cultures are pending. A PET-CT scan of the chest was performed, the axial view is shown. Given the clinical context and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A 35-year-old male with a history of multiple cutaneous vascular lesions presents with recurrent episodes of crampy abdominal pain and melena over the past month. His vital signs are stable. An abdominal CT scan is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a lesion on his nose that has been present for approximately 3 months. He initially thought it was a persistent pimple but it has not resolved and seems to be slowly growing. He denies pain, itching, or bleeding from the lesion. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. He works outdoors but reports using sunscreen inconsistently. On examination, vital signs are stable. The lesion is as shown in the image. There are no other skin lesions noted elsewhere. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Based on the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, sore throat, and fatigue. She also reports a rash that developed after taking amoxicillin prescribed by her GP for a presumed bacterial throat infection. On examination, she has cervical lymphadenopathy, a diffuse maculopapular rash, and mild splenomegaly. Her vital signs are stable. A monospot test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the rash?
A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain that started suddenly 2 days ago. Her periods are regular. She denies fever or vomiting. The shown CT was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A 28-year-old patient with PTSD is undergoing therapy. The therapist uses exposure techniques to help the patient confront traumatic memories. What type of therapy is this?
A 28-year-old female presents with a chronic cough and fatigue. She has no significant past medical history. A chest PET-CT was performed as part of her workup. The axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management, considering the image and her presentation?
A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. She has no significant past medical history. On examination, she appears dehydrated, and her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal a blood glucose level of 18 mmol/L and ketones in the urine. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 28-year-old woman presents for a check-up, reporting occasional mild abdominal discomfort. Her father was diagnosed with colorectal cancer at age 48, and his tumour showed microsatellite instability. A paternal aunt had endometrial cancer at 55. Physical exam is normal. What is the most appropriate next step regarding genetic testing?
A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and urgency. She denies fever, flank pain, or vaginal discharge. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptives. On examination, she is afebrile and her vital signs are stable. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. What is the most appropriate treatment?
A 28-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 6. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, heart rate is 120 bpm, and respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute. On examination, there is bruising over the left chest and decreased breath sounds on the left side. What is the most appropriate immediate management step?
A 28-year-old male presents with a persistent cough and fatigue. A PET-CT scan was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A 30-year-old veteran presents with recurrent nightmares, flashbacks of combat, and hypervigilance. He avoids crowded places and has difficulty sleeping. His symptoms have persisted for over 6 months and are affecting his daily functioning. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and photophobia. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she is alert but in distress due to the headache. Her vital signs are stable, and there is no neck stiffness. A CT scan of the head is performed and shows no abnormalities. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a persistent, intensely itchy rash on her elbows, knees, and scalp for the past 6 months. She reports that the itching is worse at night and after hot showers. She has tried over-the-counter hydrocortisone cream without relief. On examination, the GP notes symmetrical, excoriated papules and plaques on the extensor surfaces of her elbows and knees, as well as some scaling on her scalp. The patient also mentions a history of recurrent mouth ulcers. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A 28-year-old with Crohn's presents with new fever and abdominal pain. The patient's CRP is elevated. Review the imaging. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with worsening shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze over 2 days, requiring her salbutamol reliever daily and waking her at night. Her PEF is 60% of her personal best. She is alert, speaking in sentences, RR 22, HR 95. Based on Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management step?
A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that started around his umbilicus and has now localized to the right lower quadrant. He has nausea and has vomited twice. On examination, he has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. His temperature is 37.8°C, and his white blood cell count is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus after presenting with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. His blood tests show elevated blood glucose levels and the presence of autoantibodies against pancreatic beta cells. In contrast, a 55-year-old woman is diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus, characterized by insulin resistance and obesity. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiological differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes?
A 28-year-old female presents to her general practitioner with a 6-month history of intermittent abdominal pain, predominantly in the right lower quadrant. She describes the pain as cramping and associated with occasional episodes of non-bloody diarrhea. She denies fever, weight loss, or recent travel. Her past medical history is significant for well-controlled asthma, for which she uses an inhaled corticosteroid as needed. Physical examination reveals mild tenderness to palpation in the right lower quadrant, but is otherwise unremarkable. Bowel sounds are normal. Initial laboratory investigations, including a complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel, are within normal limits. Stool studies for ova and parasites, bacterial culture, and Clostridium difficile toxin are negative. Given her persistent symptoms, the GP refers her for further evaluation. A CT enterography is performed, and relevant images are shown. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, which of the following is the MOST likely long-term complication this patient is at increased risk of developing?
A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe right lower abdominal pain. She reports nausea but no vomiting. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago, and she is not sexually active. On examination, she has tenderness in the right lower quadrant with guarding. Her vital signs are stable. A pelvic ultrasound shows a 5 cm cyst on the right ovary with free fluid in the pelvis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of abdominal pain and diarrhea. She reports that the pain is crampy and occurs mostly in the lower abdomen. She has also noticed some blood in her stool. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she has mild tenderness in the lower abdomen but no rebound tenderness or guarding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of palpitations, anxiety, and weight loss despite an increased appetite. She also reports feeling hot and experiencing increased sweating. On examination, she has a fine tremor, warm moist skin, and a diffusely enlarged thyroid gland. Her heart rate is 110 bpm. Blood tests reveal suppressed TSH and elevated free T4. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for her condition?
A 28-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with increased abdominal pain, fever, and bloody stools. He is on azathioprine. What is the most appropriate next step?
A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of severe anal pain during and after bowel movements, along with bright red blood on the toilet paper. She reports constipation and straining during defecation. Examination reveals a visible longitudinal tear in the anal mucosa at the 6 o'clock position. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy, according to Australian guidelines?
A 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, sore throat, and a diffuse rash. She recently started taking a new medication for her epilepsy. On examination, she is febrile at 38.2°C, with a heart rate of 100 bpm and blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. The rash is erythematous and involves the trunk and extremities, with some areas of desquamation. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis with eosinophilia and elevated liver enzymes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance over the past 6 months. She also reports constipation and dry skin. On examination, she has a slightly enlarged, non-tender thyroid gland. Her TSH level is elevated, and free T4 is low. What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?
A 32-year-old male with a 10-year history of Crohn's disease presents with worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea despite being on maintenance infliximab. He denies fever or blood in his stool. Physical exam reveals mild tenderness in the right lower quadrant. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain that started suddenly 2 days ago. Her periods are irregular. She denies fever or vomiting. The shown CT was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A 32-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with increased abdominal pain and diarrhea. Review the imaging. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
A 20-year-old female medical student arrives late, parties, but is attentive in consultations. What is the next step?
A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, headache, and a rash that started on her wrists and ankles and has now spread to her trunk. She recently returned from a camping trip in the Northern Territory. On examination, she is febrile at 38.5°C, with a heart rate of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. The rash is maculopapular and blanching. Laboratory tests reveal thrombocytopenia and elevated liver enzymes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A 28-year-old male with a history of Crohn's disease presents with increased abdominal pain and non-bloody diarrhea. He is currently on azathioprine. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-month history of fatigue, weight gain, and feeling cold all the time. She also reports hair loss and constipation. On examination, her heart rate is 58 bpm, and she has dry skin and a delayed relaxation phase of the deep tendon reflexes. Her thyroid function tests reveal a high TSH level and low free T4. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for her condition?
A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-week history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling in her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test and elevated anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?
29-year-old lady with postpartum hair loss, sparse hair, positive pull test, and normal scalp. Diagnosis?
A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner six weeks postpartum with distressing obsessive thoughts about accidentally harming her newborn. She reports spending excessive time checking on the baby and cleaning the nursery, which interferes with her ability to rest and care for herself. She denies any intent to harm her child and feels ashamed of these thoughts. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and she has no history of psychiatric disorders. On examination, she appears anxious but is cooperative and oriented. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management strategy for her condition?