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young adult

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on young adult.

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A 32-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of a new, intensely itchy rash on his wrists and ankles. On examination, there are multiple small, flat-topped, polygonal, violaceous papules. Some of the papules have fine white lines on their surface. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Lichen planus
B. Psoriasis
C. Tinea corporis
D. Contact dermatitis
E. Atopic dermatitis
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents with a chronic cough and fatigue. She has no significant past medical history but reports recent travel to Southeast Asia. A chest PET-CT was performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Order a bronchoscopy with biopsy
B. Start a trial of inhaled corticosteroids
C. Repeat the PET-CT scan in 3 months
D. Initiate anti-tuberculosis therapy
E. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics
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A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, fever, and bloody diarrhea for the past 2 days. He has a known history of Crohn's disease, diagnosed 5 years ago, and has been managed with azathioprine. He admits to inconsistent adherence to his medication regimen over the past year due to feeling well. On examination, he is febrile (38.9°C), tachycardic (110 bpm), and hypotensive (90/60 mmHg). His abdomen is distended and tender to palpation, particularly in the lower quadrants, with guarding. Laboratory investigations reveal a white blood cell count of 18,000/mm³ with a left shift, hemoglobin of 10 g/dL, platelets of 450,000/mm³, albumin of 28 g/L, and C-reactive protein (CRP) of 150 mg/L. An abdominal X-ray shows dilated loops of bowel. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Perform a colonoscopy to assess the extent of the inflammation and obtain biopsies
B. Administer intravenous corticosteroids and anti-diarrheal medications
C. Increase the dose of azathioprine and monitor the patient's symptoms
D. Intravenous fluids, broad-spectrum antibiotics, and urgent surgical consultation
E. Start infliximab infusion immediately after blood cultures are taken
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea despite being on maintenance infliximab. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Increase the dose of infliximab
B. Start a course of oral corticosteroids
C. Perform a colonoscopy with biopsy
D. Surgical resection of the affected bowel segment
E. Initiate treatment with metronidazole and ciprofloxacin
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, chills, and right flank pain. She has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. On examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, her heart rate is 110 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg. There is tenderness on palpation of the right costovertebral angle. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Intravenous fluids only
B. Observation and repeat urinalysis
C. Pain management with NSAIDs
D. Intravenous antibiotics
E. Oral antibiotics
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A 40-year-old patient with PTSD is started on sertraline but develops sexual dysfunction as a side effect. What is the next step in management?

A. Add bupropion.
B. Switch to paroxetine.
C. Continue sertraline and monitor.
D. Discontinue sertraline.
E. Reduce the dose of sertraline.
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An 18-year-old teenage girl presents with a sudden change in behavior at a music festival, appearing confused and aggressive after consuming 5-6 vodkas, with uncertainty about illicit drug use. What is the most appropriate next step in her management in the Australian context?

A. Administer IV fluids to sober her up.
B. Leave the patient alone to cool off.
C. Calmly de-escalate in a quiet room and assess for underlying causes.
D. Restrain the patient physically until she calms down.
E. Immediately administer IV droperidol 10 mg.
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Synchronous multiple small bowel intussusceptions in an adult with blue rubber bleb naevus syndrome. CT scan of abdomen showing i) multiple intussusceptions demonstrating doughnut signs (white arrows), intussusceptiens [A], intussusceptum [B], distended loop of small

bowel [C] and ii) haemangioma of right quadratus lumborum muscle (dark arrow).
Image by Lee C, Debnath D, Whitburn T, Farrugia M, Gonzalez F CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male with a history of multiple cutaneous vascular lesions presents with recurrent episodes of crampy abdominal pain and melena over the past month. His vital signs are stable. An abdominal CT scan is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, what is the most likely underlying pathology responsible for the patient's symptoms and the observed bowel findings?

A. Mesenteric adenitis triggering intussusception
B. Inflammatory strictures leading to obstruction
C. Lymphoid hyperplasia causing transient intussusception
D. Malignant polyps causing intussusception
E. Intestinal haemangiomas acting as lead points
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 30-year-old immigrant presents with chronic cough and night sweats. Sputum is negative for AFB. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe antitussives
B. Repeat sputum AFB
C. Start empiric antibiotics
D. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
E. Initiate isoniazid prophylaxis
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of a new, intensely itchy rash on her elbows, knees, and scalp. On examination, the GP notes symmetrical, erythematous papules and plaques with overlying silvery scales. The patient reports a family history of similar skin conditions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Contact Dermatitis
B. Tinea Corporis
C. Pityriasis Rosea
D. Eczema (Atopic Dermatitis)
E. Psoriasis
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A 25-year-old man with Crohn's disease presents with increased abdominal pain and frequent diarrhea. He is on azathioprine. Stool studies are negative for infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

A. Order a colonoscopy with biopsies
B. Start a course of corticosteroids
C. Initiate infliximab therapy
D. Increase the dose of azathioprine
E. Prescribe a trial of antibiotics
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a palpable lump in her left breast, noticed two weeks ago. It feels smooth, mobile, and non-tender. No family history of breast cancer. On examination, a 2cm, firm, mobile mass is noted. Considering Australian guidelines for a palpable breast lump in this age group, what is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. MRI breast
B. Core biopsy
C. Mammography
D. Ultrasound scan
E. Fine needle aspiration cytology
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A 31-year-old man presents with gradual onset lateral knee pain that worsens with running and has no history of trauma. The pain is localized above the joint line, and there is no swelling. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Patellofemoral pain syndrome
B. Quadriceps tendon tear
C. Lateral collateral ligament sprain
D. Iliotibial band syndrome
E. Lateral meniscus tear
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Ultrasonographic picture taken from a patient with left ureteral stone with hydronephrosis, created in Taiwan
Image by morning2k CC BY 2.5 · Source

A 35-year-old male presents with left flank pain and dysuria. An ultrasound is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Discharge with analgesia and follow-up
B. Increase oral fluid intake and reassess in 24 hours
C. Refer for immediate nephrectomy
D. Non-contrast CT of the abdomen and pelvis
E. Administer intravenous antibiotics
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe right lower abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports that the pain started suddenly a few hours ago and has been worsening. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. On examination, she has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. A pregnancy test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Renal colic
C. Ovarian torsion
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Acute appendicitis
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male, recent immigrant from a high-TB prevalence country, presents with a persistent cough and night sweats for the past two months. He denies fever or weight loss. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild, diffuse rhonchi on auscultation. Sputum cultures are pending. A PET-CT scan of the chest was performed, the axial view is shown. Given the clinical context and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics for presumed bacterial pneumonia
B. Initiate a four-drug anti-tuberculosis regimen
C. Repeat the PET-CT scan in three months to assess for interval growth
D. Start a course of oral corticosteroids to reduce inflammation
E. Order a bronchoscopy with transbronchial biopsy
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a palpable lump in her left breast, noticed two weeks ago. It is slightly tender, especially before her period. On examination, it is mobile, firm, and about 2 cm. No skin changes or nipple discharge. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. Ultrasound of the breast
B. Observation and review in 3 months
C. MRI of the breast
D. Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)
E. Mammography
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Synchronous multiple small bowel intussusceptions in an adult with blue rubber bleb naevus syndrome. CT scan of abdomen showing i) multiple intussusceptions demonstrating doughnut signs (white arrows), intussusceptiens [A], intussusceptum [B], distended loop of small

bowel [C] and ii) haemangioma of right quadratus lumborum muscle (dark arrow).
Image by Lee C, Debnath D, Whitburn T, Farrugia M, Gonzalez F CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male with a history of multiple cutaneous vascular lesions presents with recurrent episodes of crampy abdominal pain and melena over the past month. His vital signs are stable. An abdominal CT scan is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Obtain an urgent abdominal MRI for better soft tissue detail
B. Surgical consultation for potential exploration
C. Conservative management with IV fluids and observation
D. Urgent colonoscopy to assess the bowel lumen
E. Attempt hydrostatic reduction with barium enema
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A 25-year-old man presents with a painless testicular lump on the left side, described as a firm intratesticular mass. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Spermatocele
B. Epididymitis
C. Testicular cancer
D. Hydrocele
E. Hydatid of Morgagni
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A 28-year-old woman presents for a check-up, reporting occasional mild abdominal discomfort. Her father was diagnosed with colorectal cancer at age 48, and his tumour showed microsatellite instability. A paternal aunt had endometrial cancer at 55. Physical exam is normal. What is the most appropriate next step regarding genetic testing?

A. Order a colonoscopy immediately.
B. Test for FAP-associated genes.
C. Order faecal occult blood testing.
D. Offer genetic counselling and testing for Lynch syndrome.
E. Reassure and advise standard screening at age 50.
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and urgency. She denies fever, flank pain, or vaginal discharge. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptives. On examination, she is afebrile and her vital signs are stable. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. What is the most appropriate treatment?

A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Amoxicillin
E. Nitrofurantoin
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A 28-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 6. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, heart rate is 120 bpm, and respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute. On examination, there is bruising over the left chest and decreased breath sounds on the left side. What is the most appropriate immediate management step?

A. Order a chest X-ray
B. Perform a FAST (Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma) scan
C. Intubate and ventilate the patient
D. Perform needle decompression of the left chest
E. Administer intravenous fluids
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male presents with a persistent cough and fatigue. A PET-CT scan was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Lung abscess
B. Pneumocystis pneumonia
C. Aspergilloma
D. Bronchogenic carcinoma
E. Tuberculoma
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Ovarian Cyst
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents to the ED with acute onset right lower quadrant pain. She reports nausea and vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago, and she denies any vaginal bleeding. She is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, with a relevant image shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Order a pelvic ultrasound
B. Administer intravenous fluids and observe for symptom resolution
C. Outpatient follow-up with repeat imaging in 6 weeks
D. Laparoscopic surgical exploration
E. Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and photophobia. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she is alert but in distress due to the headache. Her vital signs are stable, and there is no neck stiffness. A CT scan of the head is performed and shows no abnormalities. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Consult neurology for further evaluation
B. Administer intravenous analgesics and observe
C. Order an MRI of the brain
D. Discharge with oral analgesics and follow-up
E. Perform a lumbar puncture
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A 28-year-old woman using a combined oral contraceptive pill is prescribed carbamazepine for newly diagnosed epilepsy. What is the most appropriate advice regarding her ongoing contraception?

A. Switch to a standard dose progestogen-only pill.
B. Stop the carbamazepine and consult her neurologist.
C. Switch to a non-hormonal method or depot medroxyprogesterone acetate.
D. Continue the combined pill and use condoms for 7 days.
E. Double the dose of her current combined oral contraceptive pill.
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A 25-year-old man and a 23-year-old woman, newlyweds, are planning a 3-week trip to South America. The woman is not on oral contraceptives and wants to conceive. They are concerned about Zika. What advice can you provide?

A. Start OCP now and avoid unprotected sex for 3 months post-trip.
B. No need to delay pregnancy; just use mosquito repellent.
C. The Zika vaccine is available and recommended.
D. Defer pregnancy for 2 weeks post-trip.
E. Defer pregnancy for 6 months post-trip.
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a persistent, intensely itchy rash on her elbows, knees, and scalp for the past 6 months. She reports that the itching is worse at night and after hot showers. She has tried over-the-counter hydrocortisone cream without relief. On examination, the GP notes symmetrical, excoriated papules and plaques on the extensor surfaces of her elbows and knees, as well as some scaling on her scalp. The patient also mentions a history of recurrent mouth ulcers. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

A. Skin biopsy for histopathology and direct immunofluorescence
B. Allergy testing (skin prick or RAST) for common environmental allergens
C. Full blood count (FBC) and liver function tests (LFTs)
D. Potassium hydroxide (KOH) examination of skin scrapings
E. IgA anti-endomysial antibody (EMA) and IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) antibody testing
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A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of a painful, swollen right knee. He denies any trauma or recent travel. He has a history of psoriasis. On examination, the right knee is warm, swollen, and tender with a reduced range of motion. There are no other joint abnormalities. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Gout
B. Septic arthritis
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Reactive arthritis
E. Rheumatoid arthritis
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with worsening shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze over 2 days, requiring her salbutamol reliever daily and waking her at night. Her PEF is 60% of her personal best. She is alert, speaking in sentences, RR 22, HR 95. Based on Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Prescribe a course of oral prednisolone.
B. Order a chest X-ray to rule out pneumonia.
C. Increase the dose of her regular inhaled corticosteroid.
D. Arrange immediate transfer to the nearest emergency department.
E. Administer inhaled salbutamol via spacer and reassess clinical status and PEF.
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that started around his umbilicus and has now localized to the right lower quadrant. He has nausea and has vomited twice. On examination, he has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. His temperature is 37.8°C, and his white blood cell count is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Diverticulitis
B. Renal colic
C. Cholecystitis
D. Gastroenteritis
E. Acute appendicitis
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of amenorrhea. She reports occasional headaches and galactorrhea. She is not on any medications and has no significant past medical history. On examination, her vital signs are normal, and there are no visual field defects. A pregnancy test is negative. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. MRI of the brain
B. Serum prolactin level
C. Thyroid function tests
D. FSH and LH levels
E. Pelvic ultrasound
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of fever, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she has swollen, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes and erythematous tonsils with white exudates. A rapid antigen detection test for group A Streptococcus is positive. What is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?

A. Azithromycin
B. Clindamycin
C. Penicillin V
D. Ceftriaxone
E. Amoxicillin
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A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus after presenting with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. His blood tests show elevated blood glucose levels and the presence of autoantibodies against pancreatic beta cells. In contrast, a 55-year-old woman is diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus, characterized by insulin resistance and obesity. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiological differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes?

A. Type 1 diabetes involves insulin resistance and obesity, whereas Type 2 diabetes is due to genetic mutations affecting insulin production.
B. Type 1 diabetes is caused by insulin resistance due to obesity, while Type 2 diabetes results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
C. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance, while Type 2 diabetes involves absolute insulin deficiency due to beta-cell destruction.
D. Both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes are primarily caused by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
E. Type 1 diabetes involves autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to absolute insulin deficiency, whereas Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency.
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A 35-year-old woman with a family history of BRCA1-associated breast cancer is considering genetic testing. She is asymptomatic and has no personal history of cancer. What is the MOST appropriate initial step in her management?

A. Ordering a BRCA1/2 gene mutation analysis
B. Prescribing prophylactic tamoxifen
C. Suggesting prophylactic bilateral mastectomy
D. Recommending annual mammography starting at age 25
E. Referral to a clinical geneticist or genetic counselor for pre-test counseling and risk assessment
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A 22-year-old lady was wrongly given a B12 prescription for another patient. The error was noticed later at the pharmacy. What is the next step?

A. Notify the practice manager.
B. Report to AHPRA.
C. Apologize to the patient for the error.
D. Review practice procedures.
E. Document in patient notes.
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A 34-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute-onset shortness of breath. A CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is ordered, shown in the photograph, confirming a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment option for this patient?

A. Thrombolytic therapy.
B. Caval filter.
C. Unfractionated heparin or low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH).
D. Dabigatran.
E. Warfarin.
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a 2cm, firm, mobile lump in her left breast, noticed two weeks ago. She is otherwise well. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. Core biopsy
B. Mammography
C. Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)
D. Reassurance and review in 3 months
E. Ultrasound of the breast
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A 32-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of severe anal pain, especially during and after bowel movements. He also reports seeing bright red blood on the toilet paper. On examination, there is a visible tear in the anal mucosa at the 6 o'clock position. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy?

A. Stool softeners, topical analgesics, and sitz baths
B. Incision and drainage
C. High-fibre diet alone
D. Lateral internal sphincterotomy
E. Rubber band ligation
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of severe anal pain during and after bowel movements, along with bright red blood on the toilet paper. She reports constipation and straining during defecation. Examination reveals a visible longitudinal tear in the anal mucosa at the 6 o'clock position. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy, according to Australian guidelines?

A. Recommend regular sitz baths with antiseptic solution.
B. Prescribe oral antibiotics to treat potential infection.
C. Advise increased fluid and fibre intake, stool softeners, and topical application of a local anaesthetic and a topical nitrate ointment.
D. Refer for surgical lateral internal sphincterotomy.
E. Order a colonoscopy to rule out inflammatory bowel disease.
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A 25-year-old man with schizophrenia is started on risperidone. After a few weeks, he develops gynecomastia and galactorrhea. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

A. Hyperprolactinemia
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Cushing syndrome
E. Adrenal insufficiency
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A 20-year-old female medical student arrives late, parties, and is attentive in consultations. What is the next step?

A. Discuss lateness and concerns.
B. Ignore the behavior as she is attentive in consultations.
C. Refer her for mandatory counseling.
D. Advise her to reduce partying.
E. Notify the university regarding suspected alcohol use during placement.
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash, mild synovitis in her hands, and no signs of organomegaly. Laboratory tests reveal anemia, leukopenia, and positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) with a high titer. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Hydroxychloroquine
B. Azathioprine
C. Methotrexate
D. Cyclophosphamide
E. Prednisone
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A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance over the past 6 months. She also reports constipation and dry skin. On examination, she has a slightly enlarged, non-tender thyroid gland. Her TSH level is elevated, and free T4 is low. What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?

A. Radioactive iodine therapy
B. Levothyroxine
C. Methimazole
D. Beta-blockers
E. Thyroidectomy
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is 8 weeks pregnant by last menstrual period. She reports no fever or chills. On examination, her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, and she appears pale and diaphoretic. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the lower quadrants without rebound tenderness or guarding. A pelvic examination shows a closed cervical os with moderate bleeding. A bedside transvaginal ultrasound reveals an empty uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Administer methotrexate
B. Perform an exploratory laparotomy
C. Administer anti-D immunoglobulin
D. Observe and repeat ultrasound in 48 hours
E. Perform a dilation and curettage
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. On examination, she has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. A urine pregnancy test is positive. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe analgesics and discharge
B. Schedule an exploratory laparotomy
C. Perform a transvaginal ultrasound
D. Administer methotrexate
E. Order a CT scan of the abdomen
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his parents due to poor performance at school. Teachers report that he is inattentive, easily distracted, and frequently interrupts others. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

A. Methylphenidate
B. Atomoxetine
C. Observation
D. Behavioral therapy
E. Clonidine
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of fatigue, sore throat, and swollen glands. She also reports a low-grade fever and mild headache. On examination, she has cervical lymphadenopathy and mild splenomegaly. A monospot test is positive. What is the most appropriate advice regarding her physical activity?

A. Engage in light exercise to improve symptoms
B. Resume normal activities immediately
C. Start a course of corticosteroids to reduce symptoms
D. Avoid all physical activity for 6 months
E. Avoid contact sports for at least 4 weeks
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A 24-year-old lady presents with worsening right eye 'ache' and reduced vision. The symptoms worsen with eye movements, and there is no redness or fluorescein uptake. Her vision is 6/12 in the right eye and 6/6 in the left eye. There is a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) on examination. What associated disease could this indicate?

A. Neuromyelitis optica
B. Graves’ disease
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Ischemic optic neuropathy
E. Sarcoidosis
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-week history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling in her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test and elevated anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Psoriatic arthritis
E. Sjögren's syndrome
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