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young adult

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on young adult.

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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe testicular pain on the right side. He reports no trauma or previous episodes. On examination, the right testis is swollen, tender, and lies higher in the scrotum compared to the left. The cremasteric reflex is absent on the affected side. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Doppler ultrasound of the scrotum
B. Urgent surgical exploration
C. Analgesia and observation
D. Empirical antibiotics for epididymitis
E. Manual detorsion attempt
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents with a chronic cough and fatigue. She has no significant past medical history but reports recent travel to Southeast Asia. A chest PET-CT was performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Order a bronchoscopy with biopsy
B. Start a trial of inhaled corticosteroids
C. Repeat the PET-CT scan in 3 months
D. Initiate anti-tuberculosis therapy
E. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea despite being on maintenance infliximab. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Increase the dose of infliximab
B. Start a course of oral corticosteroids
C. Perform a colonoscopy with biopsy
D. Surgical resection of the affected bowel segment
E. Initiate treatment with metronidazole and ciprofloxacin
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-week history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling of the small joints in her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Psoriatic arthritis
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Sjogren's syndrome
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, chills, and right flank pain. She has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. On examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, her heart rate is 110 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg. There is tenderness on palpation of the right costovertebral angle. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Intravenous fluids only
B. Observation and repeat urinalysis
C. Pain management with NSAIDs
D. Intravenous antibiotics
E. Oral antibiotics
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A 28-year-old man presents to his general practitioner for a routine health check. He reports being in a non-monogamous relationship for the past year. He states he uses condoms inconsistently, particularly within the primary relationship where his partner's HIV status is unknown. He denies any recent febrile illness, rash, or lymphadenopathy. His last HIV test, performed 6 months ago, was negative. He has no other significant medical history. Considering his presentation and reported risk factors, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management according to Australian guidelines?

A. Order a comprehensive panel of sexually transmitted infection tests, excluding HIV, and review results.
B. Advise strict and consistent condom use for all sexual encounters.
C. Schedule a repeat HIV test in 6 months as part of routine screening.
D. Prescribe a course of post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) immediately.
E. Discuss and offer HIV pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) after confirming negative HIV status.
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A 25-year-old Aboriginal man presents to a remote clinic with increasing shortness of breath on exertion and palpitations over the past month. He recalls having a sore throat as a child but no specific diagnosis. On examination, his pulse is 95 bpm, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min. Auscultation reveals a pansystolic murmur loudest at the apex, radiating to the axilla. There are no signs of heart failure currently. Considering the likely diagnosis and the patient's background, which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. D-dimer
B. Cardiac troponin
C. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
D. Chest X-ray
E. Echocardiogram
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A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 2-week history of a persistent cough, night sweats, and unintentional weight loss. She has recently returned from a trip to Southeast Asia. On examination, she appears thin and has crackles in the upper zones of her lungs. A chest X-ray shows cavitary lesions in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B. Pulmonary tuberculosis
C. Pneumonia
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Lung cancer
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 30-year-old immigrant presents with chronic cough and night sweats. Sputum is negative for AFB. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe antitussives
B. Repeat sputum AFB
C. Start empiric antibiotics
D. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
E. Initiate isoniazid prophylaxis
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of a new, intensely itchy rash on her elbows, knees, and scalp. On examination, the GP notes symmetrical, erythematous papules and plaques with overlying silvery scales. The patient reports a family history of similar skin conditions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Contact Dermatitis
B. Tinea Corporis
C. Pityriasis Rosea
D. Eczema (Atopic Dermatitis)
E. Psoriasis
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A 22-year-old female presents with a strange tongue appearance after brushing her teeth, with no pain. She has a history of pustular psoriasis. What is the next step?

A. Reassure - no treatment needed.
B. Prescribe oral antifungal.
C. Daily AB mouthwash until the tongue is normal.
D. Biopsy of tongue lesion.
E. Refer to a dermatologist.
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A 23-year-old backpacker doing farm work presents with a low-grade fever for 4 days. Q fever is suspected. What is the most appropriate diagnostic method for acute Q fever in Australia?

A. Chest X-ray
B. Serology (IFA for Phase II antibodies)
C. Serum PCR for C. burnetii.
D. Rapid antigen test for C. burnetii.
E. Serial blood cultures
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe right lower abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports that the pain started suddenly a few hours ago and has been worsening. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. On examination, she has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. A pregnancy test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Renal colic
C. Ovarian torsion
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Acute appendicitis
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male, recent immigrant from a high-TB prevalence country, presents with a persistent cough and night sweats for the past two months. He denies fever or weight loss. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild, diffuse rhonchi on auscultation. Sputum cultures are pending. A PET-CT scan of the chest was performed, the axial view is shown. Given the clinical context and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics for presumed bacterial pneumonia
B. Initiate a four-drug anti-tuberculosis regimen
C. Repeat the PET-CT scan in three months to assess for interval growth
D. Start a course of oral corticosteroids to reduce inflammation
E. Order a bronchoscopy with transbronchial biopsy
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Synchronous multiple small bowel intussusceptions in an adult with blue rubber bleb naevus syndrome. CT scan of abdomen showing i) multiple intussusceptions demonstrating doughnut signs (white arrows), intussusceptiens [A], intussusceptum [B], distended loop of small

bowel [C] and ii) haemangioma of right quadratus lumborum muscle (dark arrow).
Image by Lee C, Debnath D, Whitburn T, Farrugia M, Gonzalez F CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male with a history of multiple cutaneous vascular lesions presents with recurrent episodes of crampy abdominal pain and melena over the past month. His vital signs are stable. An abdominal CT scan is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Obtain an urgent abdominal MRI for better soft tissue detail
B. Surgical consultation for potential exploration
C. Conservative management with IV fluids and observation
D. Urgent colonoscopy to assess the bowel lumen
E. Attempt hydrostatic reduction with barium enema
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a lesion on his nose that has been present for approximately 3 months. He initially thought it was a persistent pimple but it has not resolved and seems to be slowly growing. He denies pain, itching, or bleeding from the lesion. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. He works outdoors but reports using sunscreen inconsistently. On examination, vital signs are stable. The lesion is as shown in the image. There are no other skin lesions noted elsewhere. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Based on the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Reassure the patient and arrange for review in 3 months.
B. Prescribe a course of topical corticosteroid cream.
C. Initiate a course of oral antibiotics.
D. Arrange for cryotherapy to the lesion.
E. Perform a biopsy of the lesion for histological examination.
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A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, sore throat, and fatigue. She also reports a rash that developed after taking amoxicillin prescribed by her GP for a presumed bacterial throat infection. On examination, she has cervical lymphadenopathy, a diffuse maculopapular rash, and mild splenomegaly. Her vital signs are stable. A monospot test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the rash?

A. Scarlet fever
B. Allergic reaction to amoxicillin
C. Amoxicillin-induced rash in the context of infectious mononucleosis
D. Drug-induced lupus erythematosus
E. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
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Ovarian Cyst
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain that started suddenly 2 days ago. Her periods are regular. She denies fever or vomiting. The shown CT was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Ruptured ovarian cyst
B. Ovarian torsion
C. Appendicitis
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
E. Ectopic pregnancy
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A 28-year-old patient with PTSD is undergoing therapy. The therapist uses exposure techniques to help the patient confront traumatic memories. What type of therapy is this?

A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)
C. Supportive therapy
D. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)
E. Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR)
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents with a chronic cough and fatigue. She has no significant past medical history. A chest PET-CT was performed as part of her workup. The axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management, considering the image and her presentation?

A. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
B. Referral for surgical resection
C. Initiate a trial of inhaled corticosteroids
D. Empiric antibiotics for community-acquired pneumonia
E. Repeat PET-CT in 3 months
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. She has no significant past medical history. On examination, she appears dehydrated, and her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal a blood glucose level of 18 mmol/L and ketones in the urine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
E. Cushing's syndrome
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A 28-year-old woman presents for a check-up, reporting occasional mild abdominal discomfort. Her father was diagnosed with colorectal cancer at age 48, and his tumour showed microsatellite instability. A paternal aunt had endometrial cancer at 55. Physical exam is normal. What is the most appropriate next step regarding genetic testing?

A. Order a colonoscopy immediately.
B. Test for FAP-associated genes.
C. Order faecal occult blood testing.
D. Offer genetic counselling and testing for Lynch syndrome.
E. Reassure and advise standard screening at age 50.
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and urgency. She denies fever, flank pain, or vaginal discharge. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptives. On examination, she is afebrile and her vital signs are stable. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. What is the most appropriate treatment?

A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Amoxicillin
E. Nitrofurantoin
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A 28-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 6. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, heart rate is 120 bpm, and respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute. On examination, there is bruising over the left chest and decreased breath sounds on the left side. What is the most appropriate immediate management step?

A. Order a chest X-ray
B. Perform a FAST (Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma) scan
C. Intubate and ventilate the patient
D. Perform needle decompression of the left chest
E. Administer intravenous fluids
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male presents with a persistent cough and fatigue. A PET-CT scan was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Lung abscess
B. Pneumocystis pneumonia
C. Aspergilloma
D. Bronchogenic carcinoma
E. Tuberculoma
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A 30-year-old veteran presents with recurrent nightmares, flashbacks of combat, and hypervigilance. He avoids crowded places and has difficulty sleeping. His symptoms have persisted for over 6 months and are affecting his daily functioning. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Major depressive disorder
B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Schizophrenia
E. Bipolar disorder
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and photophobia. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she is alert but in distress due to the headache. Her vital signs are stable, and there is no neck stiffness. A CT scan of the head is performed and shows no abnormalities. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Consult neurology for further evaluation
B. Administer intravenous analgesics and observe
C. Order an MRI of the brain
D. Discharge with oral analgesics and follow-up
E. Perform a lumbar puncture
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a persistent, intensely itchy rash on her elbows, knees, and scalp for the past 6 months. She reports that the itching is worse at night and after hot showers. She has tried over-the-counter hydrocortisone cream without relief. On examination, the GP notes symmetrical, excoriated papules and plaques on the extensor surfaces of her elbows and knees, as well as some scaling on her scalp. The patient also mentions a history of recurrent mouth ulcers. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

A. Skin biopsy for histopathology and direct immunofluorescence
B. Allergy testing (skin prick or RAST) for common environmental allergens
C. Full blood count (FBC) and liver function tests (LFTs)
D. Potassium hydroxide (KOH) examination of skin scrapings
E. IgA anti-endomysial antibody (EMA) and IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) antibody testing
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old with Crohn's presents with new fever and abdominal pain. The patient's CRP is elevated. Review the imaging. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Surgical consultation
B. Initiate a course of corticosteroids
C. Increase current infliximab dose
D. Repeat imaging in 6 weeks
E. Start oral metronidazole and ciprofloxacin
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with worsening shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze over 2 days, requiring her salbutamol reliever daily and waking her at night. Her PEF is 60% of her personal best. She is alert, speaking in sentences, RR 22, HR 95. Based on Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Prescribe a course of oral prednisolone.
B. Order a chest X-ray to rule out pneumonia.
C. Increase the dose of her regular inhaled corticosteroid.
D. Arrange immediate transfer to the nearest emergency department.
E. Administer inhaled salbutamol via spacer and reassess clinical status and PEF.
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that started around his umbilicus and has now localized to the right lower quadrant. He has nausea and has vomited twice. On examination, he has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. His temperature is 37.8°C, and his white blood cell count is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Diverticulitis
B. Renal colic
C. Cholecystitis
D. Gastroenteritis
E. Acute appendicitis
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A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus after presenting with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. His blood tests show elevated blood glucose levels and the presence of autoantibodies against pancreatic beta cells. In contrast, a 55-year-old woman is diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus, characterized by insulin resistance and obesity. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiological differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes?

A. Type 1 diabetes involves insulin resistance and obesity, whereas Type 2 diabetes is due to genetic mutations affecting insulin production.
B. Type 1 diabetes is caused by insulin resistance due to obesity, while Type 2 diabetes results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
C. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance, while Type 2 diabetes involves absolute insulin deficiency due to beta-cell destruction.
D. Both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes are primarily caused by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
E. Type 1 diabetes involves autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to absolute insulin deficiency, whereas Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency.
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents to her general practitioner with a 6-month history of intermittent abdominal pain, predominantly in the right lower quadrant. She describes the pain as cramping and associated with occasional episodes of non-bloody diarrhea. She denies fever, weight loss, or recent travel. Her past medical history is significant for well-controlled asthma, for which she uses an inhaled corticosteroid as needed. Physical examination reveals mild tenderness to palpation in the right lower quadrant, but is otherwise unremarkable. Bowel sounds are normal. Initial laboratory investigations, including a complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel, are within normal limits. Stool studies for ova and parasites, bacterial culture, and Clostridium difficile toxin are negative. Given her persistent symptoms, the GP refers her for further evaluation. A CT enterography is performed, and relevant images are shown. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, which of the following is the MOST likely long-term complication this patient is at increased risk of developing?

A. Toxic megacolon
B. Fulminant colitis
C. Small bowel obstruction
D. Erosive esophagitis
E. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe right lower abdominal pain. She reports nausea but no vomiting. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago, and she is not sexually active. On examination, she has tenderness in the right lower quadrant with guarding. Her vital signs are stable. A pelvic ultrasound shows a 5 cm cyst on the right ovary with free fluid in the pelvis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ovarian torsion
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Ruptured ovarian cyst
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
E. Appendicitis
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of abdominal pain and diarrhea. She reports that the pain is crampy and occurs mostly in the lower abdomen. She has also noticed some blood in her stool. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she has mild tenderness in the lower abdomen but no rebound tenderness or guarding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Diverticulitis
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Irritable bowel syndrome
D. Celiac disease
E. Gastroenteritis
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of palpitations, anxiety, and weight loss despite an increased appetite. She also reports feeling hot and experiencing increased sweating. On examination, she has a fine tremor, warm moist skin, and a diffusely enlarged thyroid gland. Her heart rate is 110 bpm. Blood tests reveal suppressed TSH and elevated free T4. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for her condition?

A. Prescribe levothyroxine
B. Refer for radioactive iodine therapy
C. Start propranolol
D. Initiate methimazole
E. Schedule thyroidectomy
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A 28-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with increased abdominal pain, fever, and bloody stools. He is on azathioprine. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Prescribe a high-fibre diet.
B. Start a course of oral metronidazole.
C. Increase the dose of azathioprine.
D. Order a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis.
E. Reassure the patient and schedule a follow-up appointment.
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of severe anal pain during and after bowel movements, along with bright red blood on the toilet paper. She reports constipation and straining during defecation. Examination reveals a visible longitudinal tear in the anal mucosa at the 6 o'clock position. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy, according to Australian guidelines?

A. Recommend regular sitz baths with antiseptic solution.
B. Prescribe oral antibiotics to treat potential infection.
C. Advise increased fluid and fibre intake, stool softeners, and topical application of a local anaesthetic and a topical nitrate ointment.
D. Refer for surgical lateral internal sphincterotomy.
E. Order a colonoscopy to rule out inflammatory bowel disease.
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A 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, sore throat, and a diffuse rash. She recently started taking a new medication for her epilepsy. On examination, she is febrile at 38.2°C, with a heart rate of 100 bpm and blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. The rash is erythematous and involves the trunk and extremities, with some areas of desquamation. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis with eosinophilia and elevated liver enzymes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
B. Scarlet fever
C. Toxic shock syndrome
D. Kawasaki disease
E. Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS) syndrome
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A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance over the past 6 months. She also reports constipation and dry skin. On examination, she has a slightly enlarged, non-tender thyroid gland. Her TSH level is elevated, and free T4 is low. What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?

A. Radioactive iodine therapy
B. Levothyroxine
C. Methimazole
D. Beta-blockers
E. Thyroidectomy
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male with a 10-year history of Crohn's disease presents with worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea despite being on maintenance infliximab. He denies fever or blood in his stool. Physical exam reveals mild tenderness in the right lower quadrant. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Start a course of oral budesonide
B. Initiate treatment with vedolizumab
C. Perform a colonoscopy with biopsy
D. Prescribe a course of oral metronidazole and ciprofloxacin
E. Increase the dose of infliximab
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Ovarian Cyst
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain that started suddenly 2 days ago. Her periods are irregular. She denies fever or vomiting. The shown CT was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Tubo-ovarian abscess
B. Ovarian torsion
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Hemorrhagic ovarian cyst
E. Appendicitis
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with increased abdominal pain and diarrhea. Review the imaging. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Order a stool culture
B. Prescribe a course of antibiotics
C. Perform a colonoscopy with biopsy
D. Initiate corticosteroid therapy
E. Increase the dose of current TNF-alpha inhibitor
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A 20-year-old female medical student arrives late, parties, but is attentive in consultations. What is the next step?

A. Notify the university regarding suspected alcohol use during placement.
B. Advise her to reduce partying without discussing lateness.
C. Discuss lateness and concerns.
D. Report her directly to the Medical Board.
E. Ignore the behavior as long as she is attentive in consultations.
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, headache, and a rash that started on her wrists and ankles and has now spread to her trunk. She recently returned from a camping trip in the Northern Territory. On examination, she is febrile at 38.5°C, with a heart rate of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. The rash is maculopapular and blanching. Laboratory tests reveal thrombocytopenia and elevated liver enzymes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Drug reaction
C. Rickettsial infection
D. Viral exanthem
E. Meningococcal infection
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male with a history of Crohn's disease presents with increased abdominal pain and non-bloody diarrhea. He is currently on azathioprine. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Prescribe a bowel preparation for colonoscopy
B. Increase azathioprine dose
C. Initiate vedolizumab
D. Perform flexible sigmoidoscopy
E. Start a course of oral corticosteroids
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-month history of fatigue, weight gain, and feeling cold all the time. She also reports hair loss and constipation. On examination, her heart rate is 58 bpm, and she has dry skin and a delayed relaxation phase of the deep tendon reflexes. Her thyroid function tests reveal a high TSH level and low free T4. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for her condition?

A. Propranolol
B. Radioactive iodine therapy
C. Methimazole
D. Thyroidectomy
E. Levothyroxine
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-week history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling in her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test and elevated anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Psoriatic arthritis
E. Sjögren's syndrome
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29-year-old lady with postpartum hair loss, sparse hair, positive pull test, and normal scalp. Diagnosis?

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Alopecia areata
C. Tinea capitis
D. Telogen effluvium
E. Androgenic alopecia
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner six weeks postpartum with distressing obsessive thoughts about accidentally harming her newborn. She reports spending excessive time checking on the baby and cleaning the nursery, which interferes with her ability to rest and care for herself. She denies any intent to harm her child and feels ashamed of these thoughts. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and she has no history of psychiatric disorders. On examination, she appears anxious but is cooperative and oriented. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management strategy for her condition?

A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) with exposure and response prevention
B. Reassurance and monitoring without immediate intervention
C. Referral to a psychiatrist for further evaluation
D. Initiation of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) therapy
E. Prescribing benzodiazepines for immediate anxiety relief
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